Correct choice is (b) True
Easiest explanation: The Taylor series expansion of f(x) about x=a is,
f(x)= f(a)+(x-a) f'(a)+(x-a)^2\(\frac{f”}{2!}\) (a)+⋯
If we put x=0, we get the Maclaurin series which is given by, f(x)= f(0)+xf'(0)+x^2 \(\frac{f”}{2!}\) (0)+⋯