Right option is (d) 0.46
Explanation: Given
H(z)=\(\frac{b_0}{(1-pz^{-1})^2}\) and we know that z=re^jω. Here in this case r=1. So z=e^jω.
Given at ω=0, H(0)=1=>b0=(1-p)^2
Given at ω=π/4, |H(π/4)|^2=1/2
=>\(\frac{(1-p)^2}{(1-pe^{-jπ/4})^2}\) = 1/2
=>\(\frac{(1-p)^4}{((1-p/\sqrt 2)^2+p^2/2)^2}\) = 1/2
=> √2(1-p)^2=1+p^2-√2p
Upon solving the above quadratic equation, we get the value of p as 0.32.
Already we have
b0=(1-p)^2=(1-0.32)^2
=>b0 = 0.46