Right option is (c) 8(y^3 + y^1)
The best explanation: By using Binomial theorem,the expression (y+1)^4 – (y-1)^4 can be expanded as = (y+1)^4 = ^4C0y^4 + ^4C1y^3 + ^4C2y^2 + ^4C3y^1 + ^4C4y^0 and (y-1)^4 = ^4C0y^4 – ^4C1y^3 + ^4C2y^2 – ^4C3y^1 + ^4C4y^0. Now, (y+1)^4 – (y-1)^4 = (^4C0y^4 + ^4C1y^3 + ^4C2y^2 + ^4C3y^1 + ^4C4y^0) – (^4C0y^4 – ^4C1y^3 + ^4C2y^2 – ^4C3y^1 + ^4C4y^0) = 2(^4C1y^3 + ^4C3y^1) = 8(y^3 + y^1).