What is the reverse integral property of definite integrals?
(a) –\(\int_a^b\)f(x)dx=-\(\int_b^a\)g(x)dx
(b) –\(\int_a^b\)f(x)dx=-\(\int_b^a\)g(x)dx
(c) \(\int_a^b\)f(x)dx=\(\int_b^a\)g(x)dx
(d) \(\int_a^b\)f(x)dx=-\(\int_b^a\)f(x)dx
I have been asked this question during an online exam.
I need to ask this question from Properties of Definite Integrals in section Integrals of Mathematics – Class 12