Right option is (a) \(j \frac{1}{N} \sum_{k=0}^{N-1} x(k) sin\frac{2πkn}{N}\)
The best I can explain: If x(n) is real and odd, that is x(n)=-x(N-n), then XR(k)=0. Hence X(k) is purely imaginary and odd. Since XR(k) reduces to zero, the IDFT reduces to
\(x(n)=j \frac{1}{N} \sum_{k=0}^{N-1} x(k) sin\frac{2πkn}{N}\)