Question

Why does the flame temperatures calculated solely are invariably higher?

(a) Since the combustion takes place instantly and completely

(b) Since some heat is lost as latent heat of steam produced

(c) Since the dissociating gas molecules does not absorb a little heat

(d) Since the specific heat of gases decreases with temperature.

I had been asked this question in an internship interview.

The doubt is from Calorific Value topic in portion Fuels and Combustion of Engineering Chemistry II

Answer 1

Right option is (b) Since some heat is lost as latent heat of steam produced

For explanation I would say: When we calculate flame temperature solely we cannot get an exact maximum temperature due to which there is a loss in latent heat of the seam produced.