Right choice is (b) e
For explanation I would say: \(\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}(sin(\frac{1}{x})+cos(\frac{1}{x}))^x\)
Putting x=1/y,
\(\Rightarrow \lim_{y\rightarrow 0}(sin(y)+cos(y))^{\frac{1}{y}}\)
\(\Rightarrow \lim_{y\rightarrow 0}((y-\frac{y^3}{3!}+\frac{y^5}{5!}-…)+(1-\frac{y^2}{2!}+\frac{y^4}{4!}-….))^{\frac{1}{y}}\)
Neglecting higher powers of y,(as y is limits to 0 which is very small hence higher power terms can be neglected)
\(\Rightarrow\lim_{y\rightarrow 0}(1+y)^{\frac{1}{y}}\)
=>e