Right answer is (b) 1
The explanation is: In the question, y: x to infnity
x: 0 to infinity
Now changing the orrder of integration:
y=x
y tends to infinity
y: 0 to infinity
x: 0 to y
\(\int_0^∞ \int_0^y \frac{e^{-y}}{y} dydx \)
\( = \int_0^∞ \frac{e^{-y}}{y} ydy \)
= -(0-1)
= 1.