Correct answer is (b) False
The explanation: The given statement is false. \(sin^{-1}x\) is not same as \((sinx)^{-1}\). \(sin^{-1}x\) is an inverse trigonometric function whereas \((sinx)^{-1}\) is just the reciprocal of sinx i.e. \(sinx=\frac{1}{sinx}\).