Right choice is (b) False
The explanation is: The linearized perturbation velocity potential is derived after taking making assumptions to convert the non – linear equation into linear equation. One of the assumption made is that for the flow between Mach number 0 and 0.8 (transonic flow), the term M\(_∞^2 \big [ \)(γ – 1) \(\frac {u^{‘}}{V_∞} + (\frac {γ + 1}{2}) \frac {u^{‘^2}}{V_{∞}^{2}} + (\frac {γ – 1}{2})(\frac {v^{‘{^2}} + w^{‘^{2}}}{V_∞^2}) \big ] \frac {∂u^{‘}}{∂x}\) in the non – linear perturbation velocity potential equation is ignored because of its negligible value. Due to this assumption, the linearized equation is not applicable for transonic flows.