The correct option is (a) Laplace equation
The best explanation: The linearized velocity potential equation is given by (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕxx + ϕyy + ϕzz = 0. When the Mach number approaches to zero, the equation takes the form ϕxx + ϕyy + ϕzz = 0 which is a form of Laplace equation ∇^2ϕ = 0 and the flow becomes incompressible.