Right choice is (b) ^1⁄3
Easiest explanation: Again the key here is to expand the given function into appropriate Taylor series.
Rewriting the function as f(x) = e^-x(ln(1 – x)) and then expanding into Taylor series we have
\(f(x)=(1-\frac{x}{1!}+\frac{x^2}{2!}-\frac{x^3}{3!}…\infty) \times (\frac{x}{1}+\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^3}{3}…\infty)\)
Now the question asks us to find the third derivative at x = 0. Thus, it is enough for us to find the coefficient of the x^3 term in the infinite polynomial product above
The third degree terms can be grouped apart as follows
= ^x^3⁄3 – ^x^3⁄2 + ^x^3⁄2
Hence the third derivative at x = 0 is simply the coefficient of the third degree term, which is
coefficient(^x^3⁄3) = ^1⁄3.