Correct choice is (a) 1
Easiest explanation: \(=lt_{x\rightarrow 0}(\frac{1}{x})\times(\frac{sin(x)}{1!}-\frac{(sin(x))^3}{3!}+…\infty)\)
\(=lt_{x\rightarrow 0}(\frac{sin(x)}{x.1!}-\frac{(sin(x))^3}{x.3!}+…\infty)\)
\(=lt_{x\rightarrow 0}(\frac{sin(x)}{x}-lt_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{sin(x)}{x.3!}\times(sin(x))^2+…\infty)\)
\(=lt_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{sin(x)}{x}=1\)