Right choice is (a) 0
For explanation I would say: We know that the series expansion of cos(x) is
cos(t)=1-\(\frac{t^2}{2!}+\frac{t^4}{4!}….\infty\)
Now substituting t=sin(x) we have
cos(sin(x))=\(1-\frac{1}{2!}\times (\frac{x}{1!}-\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}+…\infty)^2+\frac{1}{4!}\times (\frac{x}{1!}-\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}+…\infty)^4+..\infty\)
Observe that every term has odd powered series raised to an even term.
Thus, we must have only even powered terms in the above series expansion. The coefficient of any odd powered term is zero.